A man went to the hotel and had a drink in the guest room.

In the first question of the third volume of the judicial examination in 2007, if there is a clear price tag, it should be paid according to the price of the hotel. Because the price tag of the hotel is an invitation and the use of customers constitutes a promise, the contract is established. Therefore, if the hotel does not have a clear price tag, it should be able to pay according to the market price. If there is no price tag, the hotel is at fault and you may not have to pay the bill. Hehe, I don't think it will be so good. What do you mean by asking this question? See if everyone's opinions are different.